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552. Comment #17205 by fonex_86 on January 11, 2007 at 10:54 pm
Ah, it seems that many people here are defending the OT rather well. I have to say that I, too, am astonished at the level of accuracy with which the Jews have preserved their holy texts. However, this again proves nothing about its truth. Just because a text is accurate doesn't mean that it's true. As for prophetic accuracy.. the bible is so chock-full of literature-speak that it is difficult to pin its precise meaning. For example, instead of stating "the world is flat, and there is water above the skies" -- which is a testable prediction/claim/hypothesis, the bible makes references to "the ends of the earth" and the "waters above it (skies)". Why is that? Is it too hard for god to just say SOMETHING to us about our world that we don't know yet, which is clear, unambiguous, and directly testable?553. Comment #17210 by Mark Taunton on January 12, 2007 at 1:54 am
554. Comment #17232 by down_under on January 12, 2007 at 7:50 am
Mark, i fancied checking out Ezekiel 36:1-24 to see just how "plain" it was and im very sorry but your description of "plain" and mine differ greatly.555. Comment #17233 by down_under on January 12, 2007 at 8:17 am
Does anyone convinced by bible prophecies fancy commenting on the following?556. Comment #17234 by fonex_86 on January 12, 2007 at 8:23 am
I was going to answer sooner, but it seems that down_under has beat me to it =D. I must agree with him when he says "...your description of "plain" and mine differ greatly."557. Comment #17237 by gimlibengloin on January 12, 2007 at 8:58 am
Theo (703)558. Comment #17245 by shauntheboy on January 12, 2007 at 9:47 am
559. Comment #17247 by briancoughlanworldcitizen on January 12, 2007 at 9:56 am
560. Comment #17250 by shauntheboy on January 12, 2007 at 9:59 am
561. Comment #17252 by briancoughlanworldcitizen on January 12, 2007 at 10:02 am
562. Comment #17254 by down_under on January 12, 2007 at 10:40 am
Shaun563. Comment #17256 by J.C. Samuelson on January 12, 2007 at 10:52 am
564. Comment #17257 by down_under on January 12, 2007 at 10:54 am
Shaun565. Comment #17258 by shauntheboy on January 12, 2007 at 10:56 am
566. Comment #17259 by down_under on January 12, 2007 at 11:02 am
Shaun567. Comment #17260 by fonex_86 on January 12, 2007 at 11:03 am
Shauntheboy,568. Comment #17261 by down_under on January 12, 2007 at 11:14 am
Shaun569. Comment #17262 by down_under on January 12, 2007 at 11:19 am
Isnt it also such a co-incidence that snakes, an animal we have a natural fear of*, are evil in the bible570. Comment #17269 by Theo on January 12, 2007 at 2:26 pm
In order to clear this matter up, I'm writing this before you reply. It seems to me that we are arguing in circles with no hope of extracting ourselves short of capitulation on one of our parts. So, I'm going to explain both how I perceive your arguments and what my position is in relation to it as clearly as possible, and if you still disagree then so be it; we'll just agree to disagree.
This statement was made in the context of a biblical defense. That is, you were in the process of explaining biblical passages that had been attacked. You even stated the reasons why God placed the tree & serpent in the Garden, and why he rested on the seventh day. All of this taken from Genesis. In other words, you extracted your evidence for the character of God from the Bible! Even the mere assumptions of the Garden as a real place, Adam & Eve as real people, real talking animals, and God as a real entity who rested are based entirely on the Bible.
1. If God exists the Bible is reliable.
2. God exists.
3. Therefore, the Bible is reliable.
1. We can't discuss the biblical reliability if you don't accept God.
2. You don't accept God.
3. We can't discuss biblical reliability.
However, I also cited some intriguing lab results (which you ignored) that might indicate spontaneous generation could take place, allowing for further study.
Finally, in comment #16883 you went to yet further lengths to show there was no third alternative and that creationism does win by default. In perhaps a meaningless concession to reason, you state that if science ever reports the formation of a living cell from raw materials, you'll return to atheism. This in spite of your earlier declaration that "WE DEFINITELY KNOW FOR A FACT that life did not originate spontaneously." It is a meaningless concession also because as a creationist you automatically assume that your conditions will never be met.
You would say the God hypothesis and creationism are falsifiable. I disagree. Why? Because even should we witness the forming of a complete, living, self-replicating cell in the lab, the creationist can still claim that it was God that did the combining, or that without God the necessary elements wouldn't even have been available, or that God allowed that to happen. The unseen force that God is supposed to supply to life is forever beyond the microscope. If it weren't, God would cease to be considered a supernatural entity.
571. Comment #17377 by shauntheboy on January 13, 2007 at 6:25 am
572. Comment #17378 by shauntheboy on January 13, 2007 at 6:41 am
573. Comment #17381 by shauntheboy on January 13, 2007 at 6:55 am
574. Comment #17400 by Mark Taunton on January 13, 2007 at 9:09 am
I also asked earlier if anyone had heard of a self-fullfilling prophecy
Basically it says in the bible it will happen, therefore all the jews belive with all their heart that it will happen, therefore they do everything in their power to make it happen, therefore it will eventually happen.
Never underestimate the power of a group of people with a dream.
575. Comment #17403 by Mark Taunton on January 13, 2007 at 9:28 am
576. Comment #17411 by down_under on January 13, 2007 at 11:54 am
Mark577. Comment #17412 by down_under on January 13, 2007 at 11:57 am
I also added:578. Comment #17415 by Mark Taunton on January 13, 2007 at 12:52 pm
579. Comment #17417 by roach on January 13, 2007 at 1:58 pm
The fact that very intelligent people can pull off such mental gymnastics in order to belive in an entity as brutal as the God of Abraham and a superstition as absurd as Biblicl prophesy makes me marvel at the amazing capabilites of the human brain. It also terrifies me.580. Comment #17422 by Mark Taunton on January 13, 2007 at 2:36 pm
581. Comment #17426 by down_under on January 13, 2007 at 3:56 pm
Mark582. Comment #17429 by down_under on January 13, 2007 at 4:10 pm
Mark583. Comment #17540 by Mark Taunton on January 14, 2007 at 3:45 pm
"8 But you, O mountains of Israel, you shall shoot forth your branches, and yield your fruit to my people of Israel; for they are at hand to come."
What does this mean? Isreal will expand? israels people will branch out? isreal wil have a good harvest? its not very clear
"9 For, behold, I am for you, and I will turn unto you, and you shall be tilled and sown:"
come again?
"10 And I will multiply men upon you, all the house of Israel, even all of it: and the cities shall be inhabited, and the wastes shall be built:"
wow god predicts that the cities will have people living in them, kudos
and wastes shall be built? what does that mean??
"11 And I will multiply upon you man and beast; and they shall increase and bring fruit: and I will settle you after your old estates, and will do better unto you than at your beginnings: and you shall know that I am Yahweh."
[unpleasant sarcasm deleted]
so god is predicting that man and beast will multiply, another amazing prediction, the beasts will bring fruit? clever beasts.
so the isralites find a new place to live and god says its him? (another self-fulfilling prophecy perhaps?)
"12 Yes, I will cause men to walk upon you, even my people Israel; and they shall possess you, and you shall be their inheritance, and you shall no more henceforth bereave them of men."
So god will posses them? not very nice thats what satan does, and i dont even understand the rest of this
584. Comment #17570 by J.C. Samuelson on January 14, 2007 at 8:57 pm
585. Comment #17581 by Mark Taunton on January 15, 2007 at 12:57 am
586. Comment #17582 by shauntheboy on January 15, 2007 at 1:30 am
587. Comment #17615 by BillySands on January 15, 2007 at 5:46 am
588. Comment #17651 by down_under on January 15, 2007 at 9:43 am
Mark589. Comment #17654 by down_under on January 15, 2007 at 9:49 am
Theo.....have you too given up trying to argue with my obviously superior logic (only superior mind because unlike yours it actually IS logcial)
551. Comment #17204 by Mark Taunton on January 11, 2007 at 10:17 pm
To J.C. Samuelson: (582)
No problem. Sorry to be slow responding. Thanks for your well-mannered and considerate tone I appreciate that.
You are correct that both being false, in the absence of evidence to the contrary, would be a logical possibility. If both are purely the work of human beings, then your suggestion of partial complementarity is as good as any other. However, I have been presenting in this thread one line of evidence, out of a rather larger collection of evidences, that the Bible is in fact true - all of it - and that therefore the God of the Bible exists and is the one true God. Then, on the basis of my conclusion that the Bible is true, it follows that the Koran cannot also be true, because it contradicts the Bible. The same goes for the Book of Mormon; other sacred texts I cannot comment on as I have not read them.
I would agree that, as a human, I cannot know with 100% certainty that the accounts in the Bible are altogether accurate. But the trend in archaeological discoveries in relation to Biblically-described historical contexts has consistently been in favour of the reliability of the Bible, and against the claims of critics who beforehand dismissed it as myth. And while it's not proof in an absolute sense, my own personal experience of places and objects has brought to me confirmation (in a small way) of the reality of the Bible's descriptions.
For example, the findings of both Nineveh and Babylon within the past couple of centuries matching the Biblical accounts of those places, and the names and characters of their rulers conform to this pattern: in previous generations, critics ridiculed them as pure fantasy. The discovery of hard evidence for Biblically identified and described individuals and political situations likewise previously considered fanciful invention stretching back at least as far as the 10th Century BC, also strengthens the basis of my faith, which requires the Bible to be historically accurate. An example is the Judean king Hezekiah, named by Sennacherib on the Taylor prism, on view in the British Museum, in a historical setting that precisely matches the Bible's record. I have also personally walked through the tunnel Hezekiah constructed to bring water into Jerusalem, as described in 2 Kings 20:20 (though it seems that that remarkable project was carried out in fear of an invading army, not out of trust in Yahweh: Isaiah 22:9-11).
Relatively recently, the work of David Rohl, refuting a conventional approach that largely disdains the Bible as irrelevant, has demonstrated the viability of a chronology for Egypt that accords with the Biblical framework. He treats the Bible as purely a collection of human documents ignoring the supernatural elements in it but still finds grounds for accepting its history, in respect particularly of the interactions between Israel and Egypt, as being substantially correct.
All these are but individual elements in relation to Biblical historicity, and many details of its accounts as yet lack a comparable degree of verification. But the raw assumption, made in past times, that the Bible is intrinsically untrustworthy, has been substantially weakened, not strengthened, as time and archaeological activities have gone forward.
As I said before, my faith is not of the type that RD describes as existing "in the absence of evidence". It is precisely because of many pieces of evidence, both within the Bible, and outside it but related to it, that I believe the Bible to be true. Like the scientist who as RD recounts in TGD is obliged to believe in quantum mechanics despite the huge intellectual challenge it presents, my faith is indeed, must be "evidence-based". It is thus like the faith of earlier Bible believers, in varying situations (e.g. John 21:24-31, linking with Acts 1:3; Acts 17:10-12 though only the last of these is analogous to my experience), and not at all the "blind faith" that many seem content to accept for themselves.
In respect of the various translations into English, you are right. The problem is clearly that uninspired human translators, such as those who produced the many versions in English, all have biases, some of which they are unable completely to suppress in doing their work. Nonetheless, the Bible text in its original languages is still available (I say more about this below), along with concordances and other tools as you are clearly aware that allow non-readers of those languages to access the original textual details and so avoid these potential problems. In any case, the best (most literal and direct) English translations are really pretty good. The KJV, for all its faults (of which I mentioned one example in my comment 639) is a work of remarkable integrity, even ignoring the purely aesthetic literary qualities it is widely admired for. It certainly includes examples of bias in translation, but not a great number, when compared to some more recent and supposedly more accurate versions.
Here I part company sharply with you. I believe you greatly overstate the significance of the issues.
Firstly, there most definitely is a single manuscript tradition for the original Hebrew and Aramaic texts (i.e. the Old Testament). The Dead Sea Scrolls discoveries at Qumran, mainly dated at some time in the first century BC, have done much to substantiate the reliability of the Hebrew text, whose otherwise earliest known instance dates from about 1100 years later. Of all the OT books, only Esther is not represented in that remarkable collection, discovered only 60 years ago. (The background to my talk's flyer visible at the head of this page is a fragment from Qumran, including a number of short OT textual extracts.) The DSSs show that the mainstream Jewish tradition, of extreme care in copying and maintaining the scriptural text, has in fact been very effective.
Now the DSS scriptural texts do vary in small details from the mainstream "Masoretic text" (MT). But by far the most common variation is merely of a slight shift in spelling of little more significance than differences such as "skeptic" vs "sceptic" or "colour" vs "color" in variants of English. It appears that the DSS texts were produced by Jews in a minority sect that didn't have the same attitude to textual accuracy as the mainstream Jewish copyists (who were, and still are, utterly rigorous about it). For example, the former avoided writing God's name YHWH, replacing it with four dots (this is illustrated towards the right hand end of the first line of the flyer background, see above), while mainstream Judaism retained it. Also it seems the DSS scribes adapted the text to conform to their specific Aramaic-influenced Hebrew dialect, as I already intimated, something not allowed in the "official" version. By far the most likely scenario is that the Masoretic text has been hardly changed at all in well over 2000 years, with the DSS texts representing a minor, and even then only very slight, divergence off that main line.
Early on in this thread (comment 153 on page 4), someone seemed to try to cast doubt on the reliability of the OT text by replicating a web-published article concerned with Isaiah 53 and the number of variations between the DSS ("Great Scroll") and MT texts of Isaiah, as compared with an alternative claimed number. What was most apparent, even from that critical perspective, is how little difference such minor variations actually make to the meaning!
For the New Testament, written in Greek, there is a somewhat wider spread there is a large set of early manuscripts, mostly partial, not complete copies of the full text. Where they overlap, there are occasional differences. Sometimes a word or two is present in one and not another. Sometimes one word is replaced by another similar one. There are a couple of well-known instances where a section of a few verses is missing in some texts (the primary example is John 8:1-12). And in some cases it seems that (as with DSS texts), the spelling and grammar of the Greek were updated to accord with current practice at time of copying, in the centuries after the original writing. But overall there is again very little substantial variation. Certainly not at the level of change that means the basic meaning is in serious doubt.
You are correct that most Bible readers must use translations. But by a combination of good translations and the relevant tools (I nowadays often use the Online Bible, making detailed research very much quicker and easier than it was for my forbears), it is still perfectly possible for a non-reader of the original languages, in a modest timescale, to determine what the original text actually says and means (for in the Bible, as in language generally, usage defines meaning). Thus can be avoided any errors or biases on the part of the translator.
Are such things not available? I don't understand what you are trying to argue Even so, I suggest the Bible doesn't actually need a lot of human explanation, and can be understood in its own context.
The Bible is a coherent and consistent book. In many places one part refers to and elaborates upon another. By paying attention to it, one can reach a coherent and consistent understanding of the whole. If I merely think thoughts to myself from within myself, that would be "an intellectual vacuum". But there are two elements in the case in point: a book, and its reader. The honest and diligent Bible reader can learn from that book what its author intended (just as I can learn from reading "The God Delusion" what Richard Dawkins intended, though I dispute some of his rationale, and utterly reject his conclusion). That is not "self-interpretation"!
From the evidence of this thread, it is clear that an atheist such as yourself will always demand more than is offered. Because of your underlying assumption that the Bible is not and cannot be true and hence that its prophetic power must be disputed, whatever level of detail I provide to substantiate the correctness of Biblical prophecy will never be enough for you!
Even so, in respect of my example of Deuteronomy 28:49-57, you are wrong in the first aspect: the parties prophesied about are identified unambiguously. The first is the people of Israel, to whom Moses' words are addressed, and the setting is their land. The second the nation of Rome is also identified, even though it is not named, by the unique combination of features described for it, that no other invader meets in toto. I can bring a name to the mind of most readers of this comment, without actually writing it, using very few words e.g. "car maker, blue oval". In a similar way, the details Moses gave, taken together, pin-point Rome precisely, without needing an explicit name. A scripturally-aware Jew of Jesus' day, on seeing the eagle totem of the legionaries would already be getting a strong hint of what was to follow, from that element alone.
Of course, had the name "Rome" occurred in the text in some way, I suspect you or others would then allege that it was inserted later, as sceptics do for the cases of Josiah (1 Kings 13:2; 2 Kings 21:24-23:30) and Cyrus (Isaiah 44:28, 45;1; Ezra 1, etc.), both named in advance. Daniel gave detailed identifications in advance of the four great empires that would rule over the Middle East: Babylon, followed by Medo-Persia, followed by Greece, and then a fourth unnamed power (spoken of as being "of fierce countenance" the last feature precisely matching Moses' words in Deut 28:50), which was of course Rome. But his words likewise are dismissed without proof, and indeed, despite evidence to the contrary as being written much later, so as to allow an alleged uninspired writer (forger!) the advantage of looking backwards, not forwards, in time.
Before his prophecy about Rome, Moses does indeed describe the troubles Israel would suffer at the hands of those earlier attackers. But at verse 49 a distinct new invading power is described. This part of the prophecy is specific to Rome.
Even then, if she had done those things, she would have had a plausible (though slim) prospect of getting it right by a combination of choice and chance: children typically bear some relation to their parents' appearance, and the approximate date of a birth is a function of (usually wilful) human activity(!). By contrast, for Moses, Jeremiah, Ezekiel, Daniel and all the rest of the Biblical prophets, purely by chance and a measure of human insight to get even a fraction of the details right that they did, is I assert far beyond the range of a "natural" explanation. The only explanation that makes sense that I am compelled by the evidence I find to accept is that the God of the Bible is real, and told his prophets what he was going to do, long before he brought it about. On that basis I continue to look to him to complete his purpose with his people of Israel, ultimately bringing to fulfilment what he through Daniel told Nebuchadnezzar the king of Babylon:
And in the days of these kings shall the God of heaven set up a kingdom, which shall never be destroyed: and the kingdom shall not be left to other people, but it shall break in pieces and consume all these kingdoms, and it shall stand for ever. Forasmuch as you saw that the stone was cut out of the mountain without hands, and that it broke in pieces the iron, the brass, the clay, the silver, and the gold; the great God has made known to the king what shall come to pass hereafter: and the dream is certain, and the interpretation thereof sure. (Daniel 2:44,45)
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